Is free will an illusion?
Debate between a user and Socrates on DebateAI.org
Welcome to the debate arena! Today's topic: "Is free will an illusion?". Your opponent's style: Socrates
My proposition is that the celebration of the Eucharist involves some sort of ontological connection with Christ's body apart from the bread and wine being divinely instituted sensible signs of it, even though they can also be that.
You're smuggling in metaphysics where symbolism suffices. If bread and wine are "divinely instituted sensible signs," you've already got your connection—why posit an *additional* ontological link that explains nothing? You're multiplying entities beyond necessity. Here's the problem: what could this extra connection possibly *do* that the sign-relation doesn't? When you consume the sign, you commune with what it signifies. Adding an occult ontological bond changes nothing about the actual experience or grace received. You're defending mystery-for-mystery's sake rather than answering why two explanations beat one. Either your "connection apart from the signs" is redundant, or you need to tell me precisely what spiritual work it performs that mere signification cannot.
The motivation to posit an additional link is based on the interpretation of Scripture. First, no text of Scripture identifies the bread or wine as representational, even if they can function that way. Second, Christ identifies it with His body and blood. Third, Paul identifies them as a participation, communion, or sharing in Christ's body and blood, which has a stronger sense than merely mental recollection. Fourth, Paul compares the sacraments to the spiritual food and drink of the Israelites, which were genuinely spiritually nourishing. Of course, parsimony is a virtue in explanation, but not at the expense of explanatory satisfication, or else you could deny genuine explanations altogether for the sake of simplicity.
You're conflating linguistic identity with ontological claim. When Christ says "this *is* my body," that's performative language instituting a sign—not a metaphysical thesis requiring extra entities. Jewish covenant language works that way constantly. The Passover lamb *is* deliverance; it doesn't require dual ontology. Your "participation" argument proves too much. Paul also says we're "members of Christ's body"—does that mean literal flesh? Or that sign-participation genuinely unites us spiritually? The latter explains Paul without multiplying substances. Parsimony isn't mere simplicity; it's explanatory power without waste. You haven't shown your extra link *explains* anything the sign-relation doesn't already cover. Mystery isn't explanation—it's the admission one's needed.
Okay, but you're simply asserting the fact that Christ is using performative language to institute a sign. The Passover was required for on-going covenant participation, so it wasn't merely a commemorative act. Nonetheless, and thing can be both ontologically thick as well and symbolically rich. Consider your notion about our being parts of Christ's body: a strictly literally interpretation would create absurdity, but a purely symbolic reading of that doesn't do justice to the text.
Fair point on performative language—but you're doing the same thing, asserting Christ means ontological thickness without proving it. The burden's on you. On the Passover: participation through covenantal sign doesn't require extra ontology. Israel genuinely encountered God through the lamb's ritual power without needing dual substances. Your body-of-Christ analogy actually *defeats* you. We're literally members through Spirit-union, not flesh. That's metaphysical realism without material presence. So why can't the Eucharist work the same way—genuine participation through sacramental sign without your extra ontological layer? You keep saying things can be "both thick and symbolic." Agreed. But that doesn't prove they *must be*. Show me what your additional link explains that Spirit-filled sign-participation cannot.
The burden of proof is on the person arguing that when Christ says, "this is my body," that those words don't carry the same meaning as their ordinary sense. Spirit-union is not symbolic, but genuinely ontological. It feels like you're assuming that as long as something isn't fleshly, its symbolic, which is certainly not the case. Even if for example there is a particular kind of presence of Christ's body and blood that is spiritually mediated such that said presence is not available elsewhere is still far from a mere memorialism.
You're right that "is" shouldn't be weakened without cause. But ordinary sense cuts both ways: when I say "this is my body" pointing at bread, ordinary language *doesn't* mean I've become bread. Context matters. Your Spirit-union point is crucial—you're admitting presence doesn't require flesh. So Christ's body can be genuinely, ontologically present through spiritual means. That's real presence without your extra layer. A "spiritually mediated presence" *is* what sacramental sign accomplishes. You've described participation without needing to posit something beyond the sign doing the participating. Why isn't that enough?
Okay, but when Christ speaks, its the Word of God being spoken, which always does what it says. Christ, being God, effects what He wills by His very speech, and you don't. If Christ says, you are clean because of the Word He has spoken, then you ought to believe that means something, not just nothing. If you told me I was clean because of your word, I'd say your crazy; rightly so. A sign of something is not the same as spiritually mediated presence. You can have one without the other.
You're equivocating between *efficacy* and *ontology*. Christ's word accomplishes what He intends—agreed. But what does He intend here? That you're clean through covenantal absolution, not that you've become literally pure substance. His speech *effects* genuine spiritual presence and transformation. That's real efficacy. But efficacy doesn't require your extra ontological layer. When Christ speaks the sign into power, the sign itself becomes the vehicle of presence—not a mere pointer to absent reality, but a living conduit. You keep asserting sign and spiritually-mediated presence are distinct categories. But why can't the sign *be* the mediation? That honors Christ's creative word without multiplying substances.
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